[2025] MCCQE by MCCQE Part 1 Actual Free Exam Practice Test
Free MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE Exam Question
NEW QUESTION # 61
You are treating a 78-year-old man for recent onset of diarrhea, tenesmus, and minor bleeding when he wipes.
He has a history of prostate cancer that was treated by radiotherapy. Rectal examination findings are normal.
Colonoscopy reveals a pale rectum with ulcerations and areas of mucosal hemorrhage. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this clinical presentation?
- A. Rectal cancer
- B. Diverticulosis
- C. Recurrent prostate cancer
- D. Radiation proctitis
- E. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Radiation proctitis is a well-known complication of pelvic radiation therapy (e.g., for prostate cancer). It presents months to years after treatment with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, and mucosal ulceration on colonoscopy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Radiation-Induced GI Injury":
"Radiation proctitis presents with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, urgency. Colonoscopy shows pale, friable mucosa, ulcerations, and telangiectasia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-2: GI Bleeding and Complications):
"Candidates must recognize radiation proctitis based on history of radiation and characteristic endoscopic findings." Ulcerative colitis (B) usually starts younger and is more diffuse. Diverticulosis (C) affects the left colon and causes painless bleeding. Recurrent prostate cancer (D) and rectal cancer (E) would show mass or infiltration.
NEW QUESTION # 62
An 18-month-old boy is brought to the office by his guardians for a well-child visit. His guardians are concerned that his eyes do not look the same. On examination, his eyes appear as shown in the referenced photo.
Which one of the following best represents the patient's condition?
- A. Strabismus
- B. Pseudostrabismus
- C. Cataract
- D. Ptosis
Answer: A
Explanation:
The image shows an asymmetrical light reflex (corneal light reflex not centered in both eyes), which is diagnostic of strabismus. This misalignment of the eyes must be treated early to prevent amblyopia (lazy eye).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Ophthalmology:
"Strabismus presents with misaligned visual axes. The Hirschberg light reflex is off-center in the affected eye.
Prompt referral is necessary to prevent amblyopia."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Vision and Developmental Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize strabismus on visual screening and refer early for correction to prevent permanent vision impairment." Pseudostrabismus (B) can be ruled out here because the light reflex is not symmetric. Ptosis (A) involves drooping of the eyelid, which is not evident. Cataracts (D) would typically present with a leukocoria (white reflex), not misalignment.
NEW QUESTION # 63
You are the emergency physician on duty in a rural hospital when heavy rains in the community cause a large landslide. There are multiple casualties expected to arrive in the emergency department. Your colleague has heard about the incident and arrives to help. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Ask your colleague to handle media inquiries
- B. Send your colleague to set up an emergency type O blood bank collecting unit
- C. Send your colleague to the affected area to evaluate the health risks involved
- D. Ask your colleague to help triage incoming patients in the emergency department
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
During mass casualty incidents, effective triage is essential to optimize care delivery. A trained physician is best used in triage or direct care. Triage is the foundation of disaster management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health / Disaster Medicine:
"In disaster response, trained healthcare providers should be deployed to triage and stabilize patients in emergency departments." MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 65-1: Disaster Response):
"Candidates must understand principles of mass casualty management and assign appropriate roles during triage and care delivery." Media (D) and logistics (A, C) are secondary roles. Triage and direct care take priority.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of a limp. On examination, he looks well, has a temperature of 38 °C and is able to weight-bear. His hip examination reveals mild decreased range of motion. Radiographs of his hip and pelvis show no abnormality. His C-reactive protein level is 8 mg
/L (< 6). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Septic arthritis
- B. Trochanteric bursitis
- C. Osteomyelitis
- D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
- E. Transient synovitis
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Transient synovitis is the most common cause of hip pain and limp in children aged 3-10 years. It is often preceded by a viral infection. Patients appear well, can often bear weight, and have only mild to moderate elevation in inflammatory markers. Radiographs are normal.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Limping Child":
"Transient synovitis is benign and self-limiting. Presentation includes mild limp, low-grade fever, normal or slightly elevated CRP/ESR, and ability to bear weight." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Musculoskeletal Disorders):
"Candidates must distinguish between transient synovitis and more serious causes of limping, such as septic arthritis." Septic arthritis (A) usually causes inability to bear weight and more significant fever and CRP elevation.
Osteomyelitis (B) typically presents with localized tenderness and systemic signs. Bursitis (D) is rare in young children. JIA (E) is chronic.
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NEW QUESTION # 65
You are counselling the wife of a 75-year-old man admitted under your care after a fall. The patient is confused, disoriented, barely sleeps at night and has complex visual hallucinations of animals running through his room. Given his state, which one of the following is the best advice for the wife?
- A. She should avoid giving him information since he is unable to understand
- B. She should confront him with the fact that what he sees and feels is not real
- C. She should tell him that she will not come back to visit him if he remains aggressive
- D. She should visit him as little as possible since this can lead to heightened agitation
- E. She should not take it personally if he says hurtful things
Answer: E
Explanation:
This scenario describes acute delirium, common in hospitalized elderly patients. Patients may say things they don't mean. Reassuring family members not to take hurtful comments personally is an important part of family counseling.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics, "Delirium":
"Patients may become agitated, hallucinate, or be aggressive. Families should be counseled not to take the behavior personally and continue to support orientation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):
"Candidates must support caregivers of delirious patients, providing guidance on managing emotional and behavioral symptoms." Avoiding visits (A), confronting the patient (C), or emotional withdrawal (E) are counterproductive.
Providing gentle information is appropriate (contradicts B).
NEW QUESTION # 66
A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic requesting an increase in her stimulant dosage for the treatment of her adult attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Her medical history includes hypertension and type 1 diabetes with associated nephropathy. She has been taking methylphenidate daily for 15 years. Which one of the following would need to be addressed before the dosage can be increased?
- A. Average home blood pressure reading of 150/80 mm Hg.
- B. Random glucose level that is often higher than 18.0 mmol/L (4.0-11.0).
- C. Estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m² (#60).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Stimulants like methylphenidate can increase heart rate and blood pressure. In patients with cardiovascular risk (e.g., hypertension, nephropathy), stimulants should not be increased without first addressing elevated blood pressure.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "ADHD in Adults":
"Stimulants can exacerbate hypertension and must be used cautiously. Evaluate cardiovascular risk factors and control blood pressure before dose increases." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: ADHD):
"Candidates must consider the cardiovascular risks of stimulant therapy and monitor for hypertension prior to adjusting doses." While poor glycemic control (B) and renal disease (A) are important, BP control is most critical for immediate stimulant safety.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A 39-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist. He says, "It often seems to me that I am not part of this world.
My voice sounds strange to me, and other people seem like figures in a dream." He has had these feelings intermittently for about 2 years. There is no history of hallucinations, and there are no current indications of disorganized thinking. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Depersonalization/derealization disorder.
- B. Conversion disorder.
- C. Delusional disorder.
- D. Schizophrenia.
- E. Persistent depressive disorder.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient describes classic symptoms of depersonalization ("my voice sounds strange to me") and derealization ("others seem like figures in a dream"), which define depersonalization/derealization disorder.
There is preserved reality testing and no psychosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Dissociative Disorders" Section:
"Depersonalization/derealization disorder involves persistent or recurrent experiences of detachment from oneself (depersonalization) or surroundings (derealization), with intact reality testing and no delusions or hallucinations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-4: Dissociative Disorders):
"Candidates must identify depersonalization/derealization disorder as a dissociative disorder distinct from psychosis or mood disorders." Schizophrenia (A) would include hallucinations or disorganized thinking. Conversion disorder (B) presents with neurological symptoms inconsistent with known diseases. Persistent depressive disorder (D) involves chronic low mood. Delusional disorder (E) would involve fixed false beliefs, which are not present here.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A 21-year-old man presents to the office with persistent pain and swelling of the wrist 2 weeks after falling on his outstretched hand. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of the wrist taken at the time of the injury showed no evidence of fracture or dislocation. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
- A. Undisplaced fracture of the distal radius.
- B. Subluxation of the lunate bone.
- C. Fracture of the carpal scaphoid.
- D. de Quervain tenosynovitis.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Scaphoid fractures are often radiographically occult on initial presentation and can present later with persistent pain and swelling in the anatomical snuffbox. They typically occur following a fall on an outstretched hand. If missed, they can lead to avascular necrosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Orthopedics, Wrist Injuries:
"Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures. X-rays may be negative early, so high suspicion requires immobilization and repeat imaging after 10-14 days." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Musculoskeletal Trauma:
"Candidates must recognize that some fractures, such as scaphoid, may not appear on initial imaging but require clinical suspicion and follow-up imaging or immobilization." Other options (B and C) are less likely without radiographic evidence. De Quervain tenosynovitis (D) presents with radial wrist pain unrelated to trauma and worsens with thumb movement.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A patient's mother comes to you with a prospective cohort study linking autism to the measles, mumps and rubella vaccine. After reviewing the study carefully, you question the results because of problems with the study design and execution. Which one of the following sources of error would be most important in the study design or execution?
- A. Parental recall of vaccine administration
- B. Reporting standard error with point estimates of difference
- C. Vaccine company sponsorship of study
- D. Recruitment of study families at an autism seminar
- E. Not accounting for all potential confounders during recruitment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Recruiting participants from an autism seminar introduces selection bias. This non-random selection increases the likelihood of overestimating associations due to pre-existing beliefs or exposures in that subgroup.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Epidemiology:
"Selection bias occurs when participants are not representative of the general population, as in recruitment from disease-specific support groups." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 65-2: Study Design and Appraisal):
"Candidates must recognize sources of bias in epidemiologic studies, including selection bias due to non- representative recruitment." Recall bias (D) is more of a concern in retrospective studies. Sponsorship (B) may create perception bias but is not a flaw in methodology itself. Standard error reporting (A) is normal. Not accounting for confounders (E) matters but recruitment source is more directly biasing.
NEW QUESTION # 70
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 20-minute history of difficulty breathing that started during a school assembly. She has had similar symptoms 3 times in the last 2 weeks. These episodes develop rapidly and resolve gradually over several minutes. She reports tingling in her fingers and toes. On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
120/80 mm Hg
Heart rate
100/min
Respiratory rate
22/min
Oxygen saturation on room air
95%
Temperature
36.9 °C, orally
Apart from mildly dilated pupils, her examination is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Panic attack
- B. Asthma
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
- E. Cocaine use
Answer: A
Explanation:
This teenager presents with acute-onset dyspnea, paresthesias, and normal physical findings, consistent with a panic attack. Panic attacks often mimic cardiopulmonary pathology but are marked by symptoms like hyperventilation, tingling in the extremities, palpitations, and subjective air hunger with normal vitals and oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry:
"Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by somatic symptoms such as dyspnea, paresthesias, tachycardia, and fear of losing control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Anxiety Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize panic attacks based on clinical features and differentiate them from cardiopulmonary conditions." Normal O2 saturation and physical exam rule out asthma or pericarditis. Cocaine use would present with more systemic toxicity. PSVT would cause consistent tachycardia.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A 59-year-old woman comes to the office because her 48-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Your patient thinks her mother may have also had cervical cancer. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test performed 16 months ago had normal results, as did all previous Pap tests. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Arrange for colposcopy.
- B. Arrange for human papillomavirus testing.
- C. Offer annual Pap testing for the next 5 years.
- D. Offer a repeat Pap test 3 years from the previous one.
- E. Offer a repeat Pap test now.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For women aged 25-69 years who have had adequate negative screening, the recommendation is to repeat cervical cytology (Pap test) every 3 years, regardless of family history. Cervical cancer is caused primarily by HPV infection, not hereditary genetics. Family history does not alter the screening interval.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Cervical Cancer Screening Section:
"Routine screening with Pap test is recommended every 3 years in women aged 25-69 who have had three consecutive negative tests. Family history of cervical cancer does not modify the screening interval." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics and Gynecology > Cancer Screening:
"Candidates must apply population-based cervical cancer screening guidelines. Family history is not a risk modifier for screening frequency in cervical cancer." Options A and B are inappropriate as they increase screening frequency without indication. HPV testing (D) or colposcopy (E) are not recommended without abnormal cytology.
NEW QUESTION # 72
A 70-year-old hypertensive woman with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) secondary to left ventricular dysfunction presents to your office with a persistent dry hacking cough. She claims it began when she was started on ramipril. Which one of the following medications would be most appropriate to replace ramipril, to ensure that the risk of morbidity associated with CHF remains low?
- A. Angiotensin II receptor blocker
- B. Cox-2 inhibitor
- C. Alpha-blocker
- D. Nitrates
- E. Calcium channel blocker
Answer: A
Explanation:
ACE inhibitors such as ramipril are first-line for CHF with reduced ejection fraction, but a common adverse effect is a dry cough due to bradykinin accumulation. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) offer the same hemodynamic and survival benefits without causing cough.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology, "Heart Failure" Section:
"In patients intolerant to ACE inhibitors due to cough, an ARB (e.g., losartan, valsartan) is the recommended substitute. ARBs also reduce mortality and hospitalizations in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-3: Congestive Heart Failure):
"Candidates should recognize ARBs as an alternative to ACE inhibitors in patients who develop adverse effects such as cough, while maintaining the mortality benefit." Other options (B-E) do not offer mortality benefits in CHF and may worsen the condition (e.g., CCBs, alpha- blockers, NSAIDs like COX-2 inhibitors).
NEW QUESTION # 73
A 48-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of regular, heavy menstrual flow. She has a BMI of 54, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, and obstructive sleep apnea. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 82 g/L (123-157)
Ferritin: 6 µg/L (11-307)
Endometrial biopsy: Absence of hyperplasia or malignancy
Transvaginal ultrasound:
* Uterus: 12 cm × 8.2 cm × 6 cm
* Intramural fibroids
* Endometrial thickness: 14 mm
* Ovaries: Normal
Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Hysterectomy
- B. Continuous combined oral contraception
- C. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
- D. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone
Answer: C
Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is the first-line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding, particularly in women with risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia and contraindications to systemic hormones (e.g., morbid obesity, diabetes, OSA).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Abnormal Uterine Bleeding" Section:
"The LNG-IUS is highly effective in reducing menstrual bleeding and improving hemoglobin levels. It is particularly recommended in women with obesity, chronic anovulation, or contraindications to estrogen." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):
"Candidates must consider the LNG-IUS as a preferred non-surgical treatment for chronic heavy menstrual bleeding when endometrial pathology has been excluded." Oral contraceptives (C) are not first-line in morbid obesity due to increased thromboembolic risk. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone (D) is less effective than LNG-IUS. Hysterectomy (A) is definitive but should follow failure of conservative therapy.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A 42-year-old businessman known to have type 2 diabetes and ischemic heart disease is admitted to hospital with acute coronary syndrome. He admits to drinking 4 beers a day for the last 6 years and to binge drinking twice a year when his school buddies are in town. Your chart review reveals that he had a seizure secondary to alcohol withdrawal during his last admission. Which one of the following elements of his history puts him at highest risk of having another such seizure?
- A. His previous episode of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. His binge drinking.
- C. The quantity of alcohol he consumes daily.
- D. His medical comorbidities.
- E. The number of years he has consumed alcohol.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A history of previous alcohol withdrawal seizures is the single greatest predictor of future withdrawal seizures. This establishes a sensitization response within the central nervous system.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Addiction Medicine:
"A prior history of alcohol withdrawal seizures is the most important risk factor for recurrent seizures during future withdrawal episodes." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Substance Use > 58-3):
"Candidates must identify individuals at high risk for severe alcohol withdrawal based on past withdrawal history, including seizures and delirium tremens." Although quantity, duration, and comorbidities contribute to risk, a prior withdrawal seizure most strongly predicts recurrence.
NEW QUESTION # 75
A 72-year-old man reports that his wife says he has hearing trouble. Examination reveals that air conduction on the right side is less than on the left side and greater than bone conduction bilaterally. He hears a tuning fork placed on the top of his head better with his left ear. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Audiometry.
- B. Magnetic resonance imaging of the posterior fossa.
- C. Computed tomography scan of the head.
- D. Wax removal from the ears by irrigation.
- E. Hearing aid.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient demonstrates signs of asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL). In Weber test, sound localizes to the better ear in SNHL. Air conduction > bone conduction on Rinne test bilaterally supports SNHL. Audiometry is the best next diagnostic step to quantify and characterize the hearing loss.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ENT, "Hearing Loss":
"Audiometry is the first-line investigation to distinguish conductive from sensorineural hearing loss and to assess severity and frequency involvement." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > ENT > 20-1):
"Candidates must know the approach to hearing loss and interpret Weber and Rinne tests to guide investigations such as audiometry." Imaging (A, C) is reserved for red flags such as unilateral persistent SNHL, which may later prompt MRI to rule out acoustic neuroma. Wax removal (D) is for conductive loss. Hearing aids (E) are management, not diagnostic, and come after audiologic evaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of poor memory and impaired concentration. She has bipolar I disorder that has been treated with lithium carbonate for 4 years. She has gained a lot of weight since starting lithium. Physical examination findings are otherwise normal. She is concerned about her memory issues, but there are no other perception, mood, or cognition abnormalities. Which one of the following tests is most likely to have abnormal findings?
- A. Parathyroid hormone
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Creatinine clearance
- E. Serum thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Lithium commonly causes hypothyroidism, which can lead to fatigue, cognitive slowing, weight gain, and memory impairment. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are often elevated in such cases.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry / Endocrinology:
"Lithium is associated with hypothyroidism and renal impairment. Monitor TSH regularly in patients on lithium therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Mood Stabilizers):
"Candidates must recognize the endocrine side effects of lithium, including hypothyroidism and the importance of TSH monitoring." Creatinine clearance (C) may also be affected but is less directly associated with memory issues. Liver function (A), sodium (D), and PTH (E) are not typically the first abnormal values in this presentation.
NEW QUESTION # 77
You are asked to see a 30-year-old woman, gravida 8, para 4, aborta 1, for symptoms of postpartum depression. She immigrated to Canada 8 months ago. She has been reluctant to speak to members of the medical team without her family members, even when an interpreter is present. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Insist on conducting the interview with the patient alone
- B. Ask the patient to write down her history and have it translated
- C. Interview the patient and the family together
- D. Allow 1 family member to stay and act as the interpreter
Answer: C
Explanation:
In cross-cultural care, especially for recent immigrants, it is essential to build rapport and respect patient preferences regarding family involvement. Involving family in the interview respects cultural norms and improves trust. A trained interpreter should be used to maintain confidentiality and accuracy, but collaboration with the family initially may encourage later private disclosure.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Ethics and Communication, "Cultural Competence":
"When encountering language or cultural barriers, patient comfort and cultural context must be respected.
Interviewing the patient and family together may facilitate trust, after which individual conversations may be possible." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-1: Communication and Patient-Centered Care):
"Candidates must approach patients in a culturally sensitive manner, particularly recent immigrants or those with language barriers, and foster trust." Insisting on a private interview (A) may alienate the patient. Family members should not act as interpreters (C). Written accounts (D) are inefficient and impersonal in acute mental health settings.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents with a positive pregnancy test. Her previous pregnancy was associated with preeclampsia, and she delivered a 1000 g boy at 34 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 130
/86 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best recommendation for this pregnancy?
- A. Amniocentesis for karyotyping.
- B. Genetic assessment and counseling.
- C. Prophylactic labetalol.
- D. Accurate dating by ultrasound.
- E. Complete bed rest starting at 20 weeks' gestation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growthrestriction. First- trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:
"In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:
"Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies." Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 79
A 45-year-old man presents to your family practice for follow-up because he has had repeated transient ischemic attacks and had been advised not to drive. During the interview, you find out that he is still driving.
He explains that he only drives to the grocery store and his wife, who also has a driver's license, is always a passenger with him. He insists he can drive. You think that he should no longer be driving a car. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Discuss this further with him.
- B. Refuse to treat him further unless he stops driving.
- C. Communicate your concerns to the motor vehicle licensing authority.
- D. Physically take away his license.
- E. Consult a neurologist to assess whether the patient is fit to drive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In most Canadian provinces and territories, physicians are legally obligated to report patients who pose a danger due to medical conditions affecting driving ability. Given the history of TIAs and continued unsafe driving, reporting is necessary for public safety.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Fitness to Drive" Section:
"Physicians must report to motor vehicle authorities if a patient poses a risk to public safety due to a medical condition. TIAs are considered reportable if they impair ability and the patient does not comply with driving restrictions." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Medical Fitness and Reporting):
"Candidates must recognize situations requiring mandatory reporting of patients unfit to drive due to neurologic or other impairing conditions." You may still discuss with the patient (B), but this does not replace the duty to report. Physically taking the license (C) is illegal. Refusing care (D) is unethical. A neurologist (E) could be helpful but would delay action in a clear case.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A 2.5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after he consumed a button-shaped battery. Chest and abdomen radiographies are performed. Which one of the following locations mandates urgent removal of the battery?
- A. Esophagus
- B. Jejunum
- C. Duodenum
- D. Stomach
- E. Ileum
Answer: A
Explanation:
Button batteries lodged in the esophagus require urgent endoscopic removal due to risk of tissue necrosis, perforation, and tracheoesophageal fistula within hours. Batteries beyond the esophagus may pass spontaneously if the child is asymptomatic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Foreign Body Ingestion":
"Button batteries in the esophagus are medical emergencies and must be removed immediately. Batteries in the stomach or intestines may be observed if the child is asymptomatic." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Gastrointestinal Emergencies):
"Candidates must identify when foreign body ingestion poses immediate risk and requires emergency intervention." Batteries in the stomach or intestines (A-C, E) usually pass without complication, especially if the child is asymptomatic and the battery is <2 cm.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A 21-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 6-month history of unusual behavior. He believes that he has been specially chosen to found a new religion. He says he has seen visions of angels in his bedroom. He appears disheveled and malodorous. On further inspection, you note that he drinks 2 liters daily.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
- A. Cognitive behavior therapy
- B. Electroconvulsive therapy
- C. Valproic acid
- D. Risperidone
- E. Carbamazepine
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The patient presents with classic symptoms of schizophrenia: delusions, hallucinations, social withdrawal, and disorganized appearance. The first-line treatment is antipsychotic medication-risperidone is a well-tolerated option among second-generation antipsychotics.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Schizophrenia":
"Schizophrenia is treated with second-generation antipsychotics such as risperidone. These reduce positive symptoms like delusions and hallucinations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Psychotic Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize and manage schizophrenia with antipsychotics and distinguish from other mood or personality disorders." CBT (E) is supportive but not first-line. ECT (A) is used for severe depression or catatonia. Valproic acid (C) and carbamazepine (D) are mood stabilizers, not first-line for schizophrenia.
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NEW QUESTION # 82
A 42-year-old man presents to your office with acute left knee pain and difficulty walking. He denies any trauma. He reports 2 painful episodes involving his right great toe in the last year. He smokes half a pack of cigarettes a day and drinks at least 3 beers daily. He has a temperature of 38.2°C and has a red, swollen and warm left knee. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Start indomethacin.
- B. Order radiography of the knee.
- C. Order blood cultures.
- D. Aspirate the knee joint.
- E. Start acetaminophen.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient presents with an acutely inflamed joint and fever, raising concern for septic arthritis. A history of gout does not exclude infection. The first and most urgent step in any monoarthritis with systemic signs (fever) is joint aspiration to assess for crystals, white cells, and organisms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, "Monoarthritis":
"Always rule out septic arthritis in a hot, swollen joint, especially when fever is present. Joint aspiration is essential to differentiate infection from crystal arthropathy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Rheumatology > 49-1):
"Candidates must identify red flags for septic arthritis and understand that arthrocentesis is the first step in diagnosis and management." Initiating NSAIDs or acetaminophen without diagnosis (C, D) can delay appropriate care. Radiographs (B) do not help differentiate gout from infection acutely. Blood cultures (E) may help, but aspiration is more diagnostic.
NEW QUESTION # 83
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