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ISTQB-CTFL Exam Brain Dumps - Study Notes and Theory
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?
- A. Requirements based testing
- B. Regression testing
- C. Exploratory testing
- D. Metric based approach
Answer: C
Explanation:
Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Exploratory testing is suitable for a new project with little documentation and high probability for bugs, as it can help uncover unknown requirements, assumptions and risks. Exploratory testing is not requirements based testing, which is an approach to testing that derives test cases from documented requirements or specifications. Requirements based testing is not feasible for a new project with little documentation, as it requires clear and complete requirements to be available. Exploratory testing is not metric based approach, which is an approach to testing that uses quantitative measures to monitor and control the testing process and evaluate the quality of the software product. Metric based approach is not effective for a new project with high probability for bugs, as it may not capture all aspects of quality and may lead to false confidence or unrealistic expectations. Exploratory testing is not regression testing, which is an approach to testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes. Regression testing is not relevant for a new project with no previous versions or baselines. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?
- A. Number of unfixed defects
- B. Test schedules
- C. Cost of testing performed so far
- D. Confidence of testers in tested code
Answer: B
Explanation:
Test exit criteria are the conditions or requirements that must be met before testing can be concluded. Test exit criteria are usually defined in the test plan and agreed by the stakeholders. Test exit criteria can be based on various factors, such as test coverage, defect status, quality level, risk level, etc. Test schedules would be the least likely to be used as the basis for test exit criteria, because test schedules are not directly related to the quality or performance of the software product, but rather to the time or resources allocated for testing. Test schedules can be used as the basis for test entry criteria, which are the conditions or requirements that must be met before testing can start. The other options are more likely to be used as the basis for test exit criteria. Cost of testing performed so far can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can indicate the return on investment or the cost-benefit ratio of testing. Confidence of testers in tested code can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can reflect the level of satisfaction or assurance of the testers about the quality or reliability of the software product. Number of unfixed defects can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can indicate the level of risk or impact of the remaining defects on the software product. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 13.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?
- A. Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
- B. Document incidents on a large board in the lab
- C. Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls
- D. Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
Answer: A
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident management tool is a software tool that supports recording and tracking incidents throughout their life cycle. A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. The best option for this case is to manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet. This option has several advantages over other options:
It is low cost, as it does not require purchasing any additional software or hardware.
It is easy to implement within a week, as it does not require installing or configuring any complex software or hardware.
It is accessible and transparent, as it can be viewed and updated by anyone who has access to the intranet.
It is structured and organized, as it can store and display various information about incidents, such as identifier, summary, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, etc. The other options are not suitable for this case, as they have several disadvantages over the chosen option:
Documenting incidents on a large board in the lab is not a good option, as it is not accessible or transparent to anyone who is not physically present in the lab. It is also not structured or organized, as it may not store or display all the necessary information about incidents.
Purchasing and deploying an incident management tool is not a good option, as it is not low cost or easy to implement within a week. It may require spending a significant amount of money and time on acquiring, installing and configuring the software or hardware.
Managing the incidents through emails and phone calls is not a good option, as it is not structured or organized. It may lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information about incidents. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?
- A. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.
- B. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.
- C. The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.
- D. The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix. This is also known as regression testing, which is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after a change. Regression testing helps to detect any side effects or unintended consequences of a fix or a modification. The other options are incorrect reasons for re-running the tests. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded, because this ignores the possibility of new defects caused by the fix. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests, because this assumes that developer tests are sufficient and reliable, which may not be true. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated, because this does not address the impact of the fix on other test cases or functionalities. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 41.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.
I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.
II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.
III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk
IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.
V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks
- A. II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.
- B. II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.
- C. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.
- D. I III IV and V are true. II is false.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The following statements about risk-based testing are correct:
II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible. Risk-based testing involves prioritizing tests based on risk level, which reflects both the likelihood and impact of defects or failures. Tests with higher risk level should be executed earlier than tests with lower risk level, in order to find and fix critical defects as soon as possible.
III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk. Risk-based testing does not only involve testing activities, but also other activities that can help mitigate risks, such as reviews, inspections, audits, simulations or prototyping.
NEW QUESTION # 27
ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:
1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access
2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access
3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.
What would be the results for:
A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience
B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience
C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience
- A. A - unknown
B - full access
C - unknown - B. A - unknown
B - limned access
C- unknown - C. A - full access
B - limited access
C - unknown - D. A - full access
B - limited access
C - limited access
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer can be derived by applying the given rules to each case:
A is ST certified and has 12 years of testing experience, which is more than 10 years. Therefore, A does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown.
B is not ST certified and has 7 years of testing experience, which is between 5 and 10 years. Therefore, B matches rule 3 and the result is limited access.
C is not ST certified and has 3 years of testing experience, which is less than 5 years. Therefore, C does not match any of the rules and the result is unknown. Verified Reference: This question does not require any external references, as it is based on logical reasoning.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?
- A. Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.
- B. Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.
- C. Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.
- D. Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software, but rather analyzing it for defects, errors, or violations of standards. Static testing can be applied to any software development product, including requirements specifications, design specifications, code, test cases, test plans, user manuals, etc. Static testing can be done by using various techniques such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, checklists, static analysis tools, etc. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 7.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?
- A. The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved
- B. For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards
- C. The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing
- D. The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects
Answer: D
Explanation:
Testing is necessary for various reasons, such as:
To detect defects and failures that may affect the quality, performance, reliability or security of a software product or system To verify that a software product or system meets its specified requirements, expectations and standards To validate that a software product or system fulfills its intended purpose and satisfies its stakeholders' needs To provide information and feedback about the status and risks of a software product or system To comply with regulations or contractual obligations that mandate testing for certain types of software products or systems The following statements describe some reasons why testing is necessary:
A) The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a contractual obligation or a quality standard that requires testing to measure and achieve a certain level of code coverage.
C) For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a regulation or a compliance requirement that mandates testing for certain types of software products or systems that have high safety or security risks.
D) The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a risk-based approach that considers testing as an investment to reduce the probability and impact of potential failures or defects. The following statement does not describe a reason why testing is necessary:
B) The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects. This is not a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a business decision or a resource allocation that does not justify the need or purpose of testing. Test automation tools are not always suitable or beneficial for all projects, and testing can be performed with or without test automation tools. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 5-6.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?
- A. Debugging identifies the cause of a failure
- B. Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code
- C. Debugging is often performed by test engineers
- D. Debugging is considered part of the testing activities
Answer: A
Explanation:
Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software. Debugging is not considered part of testing, but rather a development activity that can involve testing. Debugging is not intended to find as many defects as possible, but rather to fix the specific failure that was observed. Debugging is usually performed by developers, not by test engineers. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 6.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:
- A. Determines if the review objectives have been met
- B. Decide on the execution of reviews
- C. Allocate time for review
- D. Planning the review
Answer: A
Explanation:
A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:
Planning the review (correct responsibility)
Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility) Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility) Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to the manager role. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 32
In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?
- A. Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase
- B. Migration of the system data to a replacement system
- C. Retirement of the software or system
- D. Modifications to a released software or system
Answer: A
Explanation:
Maintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing can be triggered by various situations, such as modifications to a released software or system, migration of the system data to a replacement system, or retirement of the software or system. Maintenance testing is not executed when there is an update to the maintainability requirements during the development phase, as this is not a maintenance situation but rather a change request that should be handled by the development process. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 18-19.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?
- A. To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.
- B. To set up the test environment.
- C. To automate tests.
- D. To prepare and acquire test data.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most important task of a typical test leader is to coordinate the test strategy with project managers. The test strategy is a high-level document that defines the general approach and objectives of testing for a project or an organization. The test leader is responsible for defining, documenting, communicating, and implementing the test strategy in alignment with the project goals and constraints. The test leader also needs to coordinate with project managers and other stakeholders to ensure that the test strategy is feasible, effective, and efficient. The other options are not the most important tasks of a typical test leader. To automate tests is a task of a test automation engineer or a test automation specialist. To prepare and acquire test data is a task of a test analyst or a test engineer. To set up the test environment is a task of a test environment manager or a test environment specialist. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 13.
NEW QUESTION # 34
The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?
- A. This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.
- B. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization
- C. The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard
- D. Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development
Answer: B
Explanation:
The IEEE 829 standard is a widely used specification for test documentation, but it is not mandatory or universal. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization. The standard does not require any approval from management, marketing or development for any deviation, nor does it depend on the type of project (military or consumer market). The standard also does not guarantee high quality test documentation regimes, as it only provides a general outline and format, not the actual content or quality criteria. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 16.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- A. Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity
- B. Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives
- C. Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions
Answer: C
Explanation:
A test case is a set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results and execution postconditions, developed for a particular objective or test condition. A test case is a sequence of actions for test execution that can be followed by a tester or a test automation tool. A test case is specified during the test implementation activity, which is the activity that prepares the testware needed for test execution. A test case does not include actual results, as these are obtained during test execution and compared with the expected results. A test case does not describe items or events to test, as these are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity. A test case is not derived during the test design activity, as this is the activity that specifies the test conditions or objectives that need to be tested. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 23-24; Chapter 4, page 34.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on
- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)
- the travelling type (as single or in a group)
- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)
- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)
Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?
- A. Use case testing
- B. Equivalence partitioning
- C. Statement coverage
- D. State transition testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Equivalence partitioning is suitable for testing the price computation, as it can identify different partitions based on the passenger type, the travelling type, the distance and the kind of transport. Equivalence partitioning is not statement coverage, which is a technique that measures how many executable statements in a source code are executed by a test suite. Statement coverage is not appropriate for testing the price computation, as it does not consider the input data or output results. Equivalence partitioning is not state transition testing, which is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. State transition testing is not relevant for testing the price computation, as it does not involve any states or transitions. Equivalence partitioning is not use case testing, which is a technique that tests how users interact with a system to achieve a specific goal. Use case testing is not applicable for testing the price computation, as it does not focus on a single function or component. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?
- A. A particular tester involved in testing
- B. Time available to do testing
- C. Level of risk of the product or features
- D. Budget to do testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The extent of testing required for a software product depends on various factors, such as the level of risk, the budget, and the time available. The level of risk reflects the potential impact of failures on the stakeholders and the environment. The budget determines how much resources can be allocated for testing. The time available defines the schedule and deadlines for testing activities. The particular tester involved in testing is not a deciding factor for the extent of testing required, as testing should be based on objective criteria and not on personal preferences or abilities. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 14-15.
NEW QUESTION # 38
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